Let a > 0 then the sum of the infinite series

1 + \(\rm \frac{(\log a)^2}{2 !}+\frac{(\log a)^4}{4 !}\) + \(\frac{(\log a)^6}{6 !}+\ldots \ldots\) is

1
\(\rm \frac{1}{2 a}(a+1) \)
2
\(\rm \frac{1}{2 a^2}\left(a^2+1\right)\)
3
\(\rm \frac{1}{2}\left(a^2+1\right) \)
4
None the these

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