Which of the following option is correct ?
1
No. of solution of the equation sin–1x – cos–1(–x) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is one.
2
Solution set of the equation sin–1 (x2 + 4x + 3) + cos–1 (x2 + 6x + 8) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is \(\left\{-\frac{5}{2}\right\}\).
3
sin–1 (cos (sin–1x)) + cos–1 (sin (cos–1x)) is equal to π
4
2 [tan–1 1 + tan–1 2 + tan–1 3] is equal to π.
5
Question Not Attempted