Let f : ℂ → ℂ be an entire function such that \(\lim _{z \rightarrow 0}\left|f\left(\frac{1}{z}\right)\right|=\infty\). Then which of the following is true? 

1
f can have infinitely many zeros
2
f can have at most finitely many zeros
3
f is necessarily nowhere vanishing
4
non of the above
5
Question Not Attempted

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